Edpuzzle Answers Key 2024 [FREE ACCESS]

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Edpuzzle Answers Key – Important Topics Revealed

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Science

Get the answers for Science based important topics by browsing below:

 

Protein Synthesis

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Amoeba Sisters

Check the answers for the topic “Amoeba Sisters” below:

Grade – 5 to12 Answers

Q. What are the variations in the frogs?
Ans: the skin color – brown and green

Q. Fitness is determined by
Ans: how many offspring they have

Q. The lighter frogs are being eaten more because
Ans: they are easier to see

Q. Mutaitons and variations are…
Ans: random

Q. A trait that is an advantage is called a(n)
Ans: Adaptation

Q. Will antibiotics work against viruses?
Ans: No, it only works against bacteria.

Q. What type of asexual reproduction does bacteria do?
Ans: Binary fission

Q. What type of asexual reproduction does the hydra undergo?
Ans: budding

Q. What is a gamete?
Ans: reproductive cells

Q. Gametes have
Ans: half of the number of chromosomes as the body or somatic cell

Q. Sexual reproduction creates living things that are genetically
Ans: diverse or different

Q. One benefit to sexual reproduction is
Ans: a diverse population will more likely be able to adapt to changes in its environment.

Q. You shouldn’t wash your hands after a lab because you wore gloves.
Ans: True

Q. How many cell types will be discussed in the video?
Ans: 2

Q. What can cause infections?
Ans:
– fungus
– bacteria
– virus

Q. What causes a ringworm?
Ans: fungus

Q. What only works on bacteria?
Ans: antibiotics

Q. What type of cell is bacteria?
Ans: prokaryote

Q. Eukaryotic cells are
Ans:
– fungi
– human cells

Q. What major thing that these cell types have in common?
Ans:
– cell wall
– cell membrane

Q. Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell have
Ans: DNA (genetic material)

Q. Both prokaryotes and eukaryotes have
Ans: ribosomes

Q. Eukaryotes have membrane-bound
Ans: organelles

Q. What holds DNA?
Ans: nucleus

Q. Which of the following is not found in an animal cell?
Ans: chloroplast

Q. What organelle does a muscle have plenty of?
Ans: mitochondria

Q. Hydra are considered to be _.
Ans: animals

Q. The scientist who did the most widely accepted work with classification was _.
Ans: Carolus Linnaeus

Q. How many Domains are there?
Ans: 3

Q. Classification of species will continue to change with new discoveries with DNA.
Ans: true

Q. Scientists of the time didn’t know about these things because…
Ans: …they lacked the technology.

Q. How many Kingdoms are there in Eukarya?
Ans: 4

Q. The farther down the organizational levels you go, the _ specific you get.
Ans: more

Q. The two word naming system that Carlus Linnaeus developed is called binomial nomenclature.
Ans: true

Q. In binomial nomenclature, the first part of a name is the _.
Ans: genus

Q. In binomial nomenclature, the second part of a name is the _.
Ans: species

Q. What is osmosis
Ans: movement of water through a cell membrane

Q. What type of transport is osmosis?
Ans: Passive

Q. In passive transport, osmosis always moves water from a
Ans: high concentration to a low concentration

Q. Think about where the water is in high concentration, where water is in low concentration, and where the water wants to go…
What is your prediction? Which side will the water move towards?
Ans: Side B

Q. Water will move from high concentration to low concentration until what is reached?
Ans: homeostasis, balance

Q. Identify where the water concentration is high and low. What direction will the water move?
Ans: from the outside to the inside of the cell

Q. In this scenario, what would happen to the blood cells?
Ans: They gain water and possibly burst.

Q. What would happen if a person was given an IV that was HYPERTONIC compared to the blood?
Ans: The blood cells would lose water and shrink.

Q. So, then what is homeostasis?
Ans: it means “in balance”

Q. A “cold-blooded” animals is called an:
Ans: Ectotherm

Q. How was Debby regulating his temperature?
Ans: Using the environment

Q. What is the purpose of sweating?
Ans: To bring the body temperature back to normal

Q. How does you body generate heat?
Ans: Shivering

Q. Negative feedback brings the body back to the
Ans: set point

Q. Negative Feedback loops occurs when the body tries to __ a condition it is experiencing
Ans: reverse

Q. Insulin and glucagon are used to:
Ans: Keep blood glucose levels in an ideal range

Q. If your body has too much glucose in the blood, what will be released to control blood glucose regulation?
Ans: insulin

Q. Why do people with diabetes have a hard time keeping a balance blood-glucose level?
Ans: they don’t make any insulin hormone, to help move glucose into the cell when there is a need

Q. Are viruses larger than cells?
Ans: No, viruses are very, very tiny

Q. Viruses may not all have the same shape but there is one thing that all viruses MUST have.
Ans: All viruses must have genetic material, either DNA or RNA

Q. What do viruses need in order to replicate/reproduce?
Ans: They need a host cell

Q. Any cell can be a host for a virus…
Ans: …but viruses are specific so they only attack a specific type of cell.

Q. What are some characteristics of the lytic cycle? (check all 4 correct answers!)
Ans:
– Causes the cell to lyse (rupture/split)
– Virus injects its genetic material into the cell
– Virus attaches to the outside of the cells
– The cell starts using its own materials to make new viruses

Q. What is it called when a cell reproduces by splitting into two?
Ans: Binary Fission

Q. What type of cells in the human body does HIV attack?
Ans: Immune cells (helper T cells)

Q. What problem can occur with HIV, and other viruses, that can make a medicine no longer work against that virus.
Ans: The virus can mutate making medicines less effective.

Q. How can viruses be used the help our environment?
Ans: To kill pests instead of using chemicals.

Q. Which of the following living things can have mutations?
Check all that apply.
Ans:
– Animals
– Plants
– Bacteria
– Fungi
– Protists

Q. TRUE or FALSE: Organisms can CHOOSE to have a mutation.
Ans: False

Q. Which of the following is an example that might cause a mutation to occur?
Ans: External influences like different chemicals

Q. What is deletion?
Ans: A base was removed

Q. How many chromosomes does a human have?
Ans: 46

Q. What type of mutation involves the genetic material breaking off?
Ans: Deletion

Q. How does someone become a carrier for sickle cell anemia?
Ans: They inherit one copy from one parent

Higher Education/College Answers

Q. True or False? Antibiotics are effective tools to kill viruses.
Ans: False

Q. Viruses are …
Ans: non-living

Q. Choose ALL correct answers. All viruses have some type of …
Ans:
– genetic material (DNA or RNA)
– protein coat

Q. Which of the following are bigger?
Ans: bacteria

Q. True or False? Viruses can reproduce on their own.
Ans: False

Q. Viruses need a __ to infect.
Ans: Host

Q. How do virus copies get out of the cell?
Ans: The cell membrane bursts from overcrowding.

Q. In the lysogenic cycle the genetic material…
Ans: stay hidden within the host

Q. True of False? Viruses are sometimes triggered into an active state by overexposure to sun, sickness, or stress.
Ans: True

Q. Which of the following explains why HIV is so dangerous?
Ans: HIV is dangerous because it slowly attacks the body’s immune system making it difficult to fight off other pathogens.

Q. Why are viruses not considered living things?
Ans: They lack many of the characteristics of living things.

Q. What do bacteriophages attack?
Ans: Bacteria

Q. What do all viruses have in common?
Ans: They all contain some type of genetic material (DNA or RNA)

Q. What is the outside of a virus called?
Ans: capsid

Q. What do viruses need to replicate?
Ans: A host

Q. Do all viruses affect multiple species?
Ans: No, they are very specific in what species they choose

Q. What would be purpose of lysing the host cell?
Ans: In order to spread the virus to new cells

Q. Does the lysogenic cycle ever change into the lytic cycle?
Ans: Yes, when a trigger occurs the virus will switch to the lytic cycle

Q. On pedigrees, circles always represent _ while squares always represent _.
Ans: females, males

Q. Males have _ s*x chromosomes and females have _ s*x chromosomes.
Ans: XY, XX

Q. Females who are carriers for the recessive allele have what genotype?
Ans: Heterozygous

 

Macromolecules

Check the answers for the topic “Macromolecules” below:

Grade – 5 to12 Answers

Q. What is a monomer?
Ans: A building block / one unit of a macromolecule

Q. Carbohydrates provide organisms with:
Ans: “fast” energy
Carbs and sugars provide us with a “fast” source of energy. Think about eating a candy that’s high in sugar, and how you feel shortly after.

Q. What is the monomer of a carbohydrate?
lipid
Ans: monosaccharide
Again – “mono” means one. “Saccharide” refers to sugar. Any time you see the suffix saccharide, it is referring to some type of carb.

Q. Which of the following makes up the structure of a lipid?
Ans: fatty acid
Do NOT confuse a fatty acid and a nucleic acid. They are different things! Think of lipids as “fats”.

Q. Which is a more “long term” source of energy?
Ans: Lipids

Q. What is the monomer of a protein?
Ans: amino acid
Lots of acids! Focus on the “amino” part to remember that this is the building block of a protein.

Q. Which of the following is NOT an example of proteins?
Ans: DNA

Q. What is the monomer of a nucleic acid?
Ans: nucleotide

Q. Which organisms contain nucleic acids?
Ans:
– Check all that apply.
– Bacteria
– Trees

Q. What does CHO stand for?
Ans: Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen

Q. Which is the only macromolecule to contain Phosphorus atoms?
Ans: Nucleic Acids

Q. How many categories of molecules are there?
Ans: 2

Q. Micromolecules do which?
Ans: Form building blocks

Q. Amino acids join by forming which?
Ans: Peptide bonds

Q. Energy and heat work with the cell’s building blocks and allow anabolic pathways to produce which?
Ans: Nucleic Acids, proteins, lipids, and carbohydrates

Q. Water and iron are micromolecules that are inorganic.
Nucleic Acids, proteins, lipids, and carbohydrates
Ans: True

Q. Micromolecules are considered to be organic molecules
Ans: False

Q. A monomer can be linked together to form a polymer. Both are inorganic.
Ans: True

Q. The four monomers of biomolecules (macromolecules) are: Nucleic acid, oxygen, carbohydrates and water
Ans: False

Q. Micromolecules are mall in weight and macromolecules/biomolecules are larger and have a complex structure.
Ans: True

Q. Macromoles/Biomolecules dissolve easily in the cellular fluids of living things.
Ans: False

Q. What are the four types of macromolecules in living organisms?
Ans: Carbohydrates, Proteins, Nucleic Acids, Lipids

Q. What is a monomer?
Ans: A single piece

Q. What do you need to create a macromolecule?
Ans: Lots of monomers

Q. What is the monomer in a carbohydrate called?
Ans: monosaccharide

Q. Where can you find simple sugars?
Ans: Milk

Q. What does di mean?
Ans: Two

Q. What is your main source of energy?
Ans: Carbohydrates

Q. Overall, which of the following macromolecules give you long term energy that is usually stored?
Ans: lipid

Q. Are lipids soluble (dissolve) in water?
Ans: No

Q. An example of a lipid would be
Ans: Oils

Q. What do proteins help build?
Ans: Muscle

Q. Amino acids are held together by what type of bond?
Ans: Peptide Bond

Q. What do nucelic acids do?
Ans: Store your DNA & RNA

Q. A bunch of nucleotides put together in a chain, like DNA, would be considered a
Ans: polymer

Q. What 3 elements are in all macromolecules?
Ans: Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen

Q. Biological molecules are necessary for every living thing (every organism) to survive. They help organisms because they provide: (check ALL that apply)
Ans:
– energy storage
– essential sources of energy
– instructions for life

Q. The FOUR biological molecules essential for every organism are: (check ALL that apply)
Ans:
– proteins
– lipids (fats)
– nucleic acids (DNA)
– carbohydrates

Q. The ultimate source of energy (thanks to photosynthesis) comes in the form of
Ans: Carbohydrates

Q. What type of carbohydrate is created by photosynthesis?
Ans: monosaccharide

Q. Besides glycogen, what is the main source of energy storage in animals?
Ans: fat

Q. We store glucose as ___.
Ans: glycogen

Q. What makes unsaturated fat different than a saturated fat? (CHECK ALL THAT APPLY)
Ans:
– unsaturated fat has less hydrogen atoms
– unsaturated fats are liquid at room temperature

Q. That type of fat is found as a liquid at room temperature?
Ans: unsaturated fat

Q. Phospholipid’s most unique and useful property for a cell membrane is that
Ans: it has one end that is attracted to water and one end that is repelled by water

Q. A cell membrane is made up of
Ans: a double layer of phospholipids where the heads point outwards and the tails are bushed towards the center of the membrane

Q. Which chemical can we only get from eating protein?
Ans: Nitrogen

Q. The basic building block for a protein is the
Ans: Amino acid

Q. How many types of amino acids are there?
Ans: 20

Q. Which of the following biological molecules are composed of the elements C, H, O, N and S?
Ans: proteins

Q. Which of the following biological molecules are composed of the elements C, H and O ONLY? (check ALL that apply)
Ans:
– carbohydrates
– lipids

Q. Which of the following biological molecules has amino acids as the sub units?
Ans: proteins

Q. Which of the following biological molecules has single sugars as the sub units?
Ans: carbohydrates

Q. Which of the following biological molecules are composed of the elements C, H, O, N and P?
Ans: nucleic acids

Higher Education/College Answers

Q. Carbohydrates are a huge source of…
Ans: “fast” energy
Carbs and sugars provide us with a “fast” source of energy. Think about eating a candy that’s high in sugar, and how you feel shortly after.

Q. What is the monomer of a carbohydrate?
Ans: monosaccharide
Again – “mono” means one. “Saccharide” refers to sugar. Any time you see the suffix saccharide, it is referring to some type of carb.

Q. Which of the following makes up the structure of a lipid?
Ans: fatty acid
Do NOT confuse a fatty acid and a nucleic acid. They are different things! Think of lipids as “fats”.

Q. What is NOT a function of a lipid?
Ans: genetic information
This is a nucleic acid’s job.

Q. Which is a more “long term” source of energy?
Ans: Lipids

Q. What is the monomer of a protein?
Ans: amino acid
Lots of acids! Focus on the “amino” part to remember that this is the building block of a protein.

Q. Which of the following is NOT an example of proteins?
Ans: DNA

Q. What is the monomer of a nucleic acid?
Ans: nucleotide

Q. Which of these contain nucleic acids? Check all that apply.
Ans:
– Bacteria
– Trees
– Humans

Q. What does CHO stand for?
Ans: Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen

Q. Which is the only macromolecule to contain Phosphorus atoms?
Ans: Nucleic Acids

Q. The function of cell membrane (plasma membrane) is to:
Ans: maintain homeostasis by regulating what goes in and out of a cell

Q. The cytoskeleton,which is made of microtubules and microfibers, (check all that apply):
Ans:
– helps transport objects in the cell
– helps move organelles around in the cell
– helps provide structure and support for the cell

Q. The function of the ribosomes is to:
Ans: make proteins

Q. Where are ribosomes produced in the cell?
Ans: The nucleolus

Q. Molecules ready to be transported out of the cell are packaged in small sacs (that sometimes pinch off of the ER) called:
Ans: vesicles

Q. The function of the Golgi apparatus (Golgi body) is to:
Ans: modify and package products for transport or secretion

Q. The endoplasmic reticulum (ER) functions to:
Ans: package and transport cellular products

Q. What organelle is responsible for making energy in the cell by converting glucose to the usable energy of ATP?
Ans: mitochondria

Q. The green-colored organelle only present in plant cells (and some protists) that captures energy from the sun and makes glucose is the:
Ans: chloroplast

Q. The function of the vacuole is:
Ans: storage of water and other products

Q. Plant cells have this additional organelle outside of the cell membrane that provides structure, support, and protection:
Ans: cell wall

 

Photosynthesis

Check the quiz questions and answers by clicking the below link:

=> Find Answers Here

 

Plate Tectonics

Check the answers for the topic “Plate Tectonics” below:

Grade – 5 to12 Answers

Q. The earth shifts or moves __.
Ans: Slowly

Q. How many inches per year does it move?
Ans: 1-6 inches

Q. What are tectonic plates?
Ans: Large pieces of Earth’s lithosphere that move.

Q. Which layer of the Earth has molten rock that causes the tectonic plates to move?
Ans: Asthenosphere

Q. How many plates are there?
Ans: 7 major plates and 10 minor ones

Q. What are the two types of crust?
Ans: Continental and Oceanic

Q. How many types of boundaries are there?
Ans: 3

Q. Which type of plate boundary pulls apart?
Ans: Divergent

Q. Which type of boundary slides, one past the other?
Ans: Transform

Q. What was the land mass called when plates were together?
Ans: Pangaea

Q. Scientists use technology to learn about tectonic plates in order to…
Ans: …predict earthquakes.

Q. South America and Africa could be fit together like two pieces in a puzzle
Ans: True

Q. 250 million years ago, all land was in one supercontinent called what?
Ans: Pangea

Q. What different pieces is the crust of the Earth broken into?
Ans: tectonic plates

Q. What causes tectonic plates to move?
Ans: Convection currents from the heat of the mantle

Q. Convergent plates move in what way?
Ans: plates are moving towards each other

Q. What do convergent plates form?
Ans: mountains and volcanoes

Q. What happens at divergent plate boundaries?
Ans: plates move away from each other

Q. What happens at a transform fault boundary?
Ans: plates slide past one another

Q. Where can we find an example of a transform boundary?
Ans: California, San Andreas fault

Q. Which plate boundaries cause an earthquake to occur?
Ans: transform fault boundary plates

Q. What do you call the force that opposes the motion between two objects sliding past each other?
Ans: friction

Q. What do you call the place on the Earth’s surface where the earthquake occurs?
Ans: epicenter

Q. How much does the land that we walk on move each year?
Ans: Between 1 and 6 inches

Q. What is the Lithosphere?
Ans: The top layer of the earth. It actually moves.

Q. What makes up the Lithosphere?
Ans: Part of the upper mantle and the crust.

Q. Is the Asthenosphere liquid or solid?
Ans: liquid

Q. How far down into the earth do tectonic plates go?
Ans: at least 62 miles

Q. Where do tectonic plates move?
Ans: Where they meet

Q. What is a convergent boundary?
Ans: Where 2 tectonic plates push against each other.

Q. At convergent boundaries, one plate slides under another. This is called
Ans: Subduction

Q. What can happen at convergent boundaries?
Ans:
-Mountains
-Earthquakes

Q. What is created when 2 plates diverge?
Ans: Rifts

Q. What is a transform boundary?
Ans: Two plates rubbing each other as they pass each other.

Q. What occurs at transform boundaries?
Ans: Faults and earthquakes

Q. This diagram is to help you remember:
Ans: divergent plate boundary

Q. An example of subduction:
Ans: the Andes Mountains

Q. What was the name of Alfred Wegener’s theory that the continents were once together and slowly moved apart?
Ans: continental drift

Q. Which of the following pieces of evidence did Wegener use to support his theory of continental drift?
Ans:
-Continent coastlines seemed to fit together.
-The same fossils were found of separate continents

Q. What process was eventually shown to provide enough force to move Earth’s plates?
Ans: convection currents in Earth’s mantle

Q. What evidence finally proved that Earth’s surface is moving?
Ans: Magnetic data from the ocean floor showed that material is emerging and then spreading apart.

Q. What will eventually happen where the Arabian Plate and the African Plate are separating?
Ans: Water will fill the rift valleys.

Q. The last two words of the video are
Ans: “Stay curious.”

Higher Education/College Answers

Q. Which answer BEST describes features that often appear at plate boundaries?
Ans:
-Mountains
-Volcanos
-Deep sea vents

Q. Our Earth is comprised by 85% volume of :
Ans: mantle

Q. A sedimentary rock comes from broken rocks cemented together.
Ans: true

Q. Where is convection taking place?
Ans: plastic mantle

Q. Subduction occurs when the oceanic plate is pushed underneath the continental plate.
Ans: true

Q. Many earthquakes and volcanoes are found along the Pacific Rim known as the Ring of Fire.
Ans: true

Q. Convergent plate boundaries are where:
Ans: plates are pushing towards each other

Q. Divergent plate boundaries are where:
Ans: plates are moving apart

Q. Transform boundaries are where:
Ans: plates slide past each other

Q. Hot spots that create islands like Hawaii are only located along plate boundaries.
Ans: false

Q. What are two hazards that occur on a plate boundary?
Ans:
-Volcanos
-Earthquakes

Q. A tsunami is caused by an underwater earthquake.
Ans: true

Q. Which tectonic plate do we live on?
Ans: The North American Plate

Q. Take a look at the South American Plate (light green) and the African Plate (green, in the center of the map). Are these plates moving towards or away from one another?
Ans: The plates are moving away from each other.

Q. In the mantle, hotter material flows up to the Earth’s crust and cooler material sinks down lower into the mantle. This movement of material is what causes the tectonic plates to move. This process is called:
Ans: convection

Q. What drives the rock cycle?
Ans: Plate tectonics

Q. When the land masses were all connected what were they called?
Ans: pangua

Q. Pull-apart, rift zones are generally associated with a __ plate boundary.
Ans: divergent

Q. Oceanic crust is destroyed along
Ans: convergent plate boundaries

Q. Deep ocean trenches are evidence for __.
Ans: sinking of oceanic lithosphere into the mantle at a subduction zone

Q. Which of the following statements does not correctly describe subduction zones?
Ans: They are sites where lithospheric plates are diverging or pulling apart.

Q. High mountains such as the Himalayas (non-volcanic) are a result of:
Ans: two continental plates colliding.

 

Cell Transport

Check the answers for the topic “Cell Transport” below:

Grade – 5 to12 Answers

Q. What is the function of the cell membrane?
Ans: Allows materials to flow in and out of the cell.

Q. What does it mean for the cell membrane to have a phospholipid bilayer?
Ans: The cell membrane has two layers of phospholipids

Q. The Phosphate part (heads) of the phospholipid bilayer are , while the lipid layer (tails) are __.
Ans: polar; nonpolar

Q. What molecules are able to pass through the cell membrane by simple diffusion? (Select all that apply!)
Ans:
-Carbon dioxide
-Oxygen

Q. Simple diffusion is a type of _ transport, because of the particles “move with the flow” from high concentration to low concentration.
Ans: Passive

Q. Molecules that are too large to flow across the membrane need help from what structures?
Ans: Transport Proteins

Q. What is a common large molecule that uses facilitated diffusion to move across the cell membrane?
Ans: glucose

Q. What powers Active transport?
Ans: ATP energy

Q. What cellular energy is needed to move molecules against the concentration gradient?
Ans: ATP energy

Q. In the process of endocytosis, how does a cell typically bring large molecule(s) into the cell?
Ans: vesicles

Q. Indicate which of the following are functions of exocytosis. (Select all that apply!)
Ans:
-removing cellular wastes
-releasing large cell products

Q. When would a plant need exocytosis?
Ans: To move carbohydrates out of the cell and create the cell wall

Q. What is the function of the cell membrane?
Ans: Allows materials to flow in and out of the cell.

Q. What does it mean for the cell membrane to have a phospholipid bilayer?
Ans: The cell membrane has two layers of phospholipids

Q. The Phosphate part (heads) of the phospholipid bilayer are , while the lipid layer (tails) are __.
Ans: polar; nonpolar

Q. What molecules are able to pass through the cell membrane by simple diffusion? (Select all that apply!)
Ans:
-Carbon dioxide
-Oxygen

Q. Simple diffusion is a type of _ transport, because the particles “move with the flow” from high concentration to low concentration.
Ans: Passive

Q. Molecules that are too large to flow across the membrane need help from what structures?
Ans: Transport Proteins

Q. What is a common large molecule that uses facilitated diffusion to move across the cell membrane?
Ans: glucose

Q. What powers Active transport?
Ans: ATP energy

Q. What cellular energy is needed to move molecules against the concentration gradient?
Ans: ATP energy

Q. In the process of endocytosis, how does a cell typically bring large molecule(s) into the cell?
Ans: vesicles

Q. Indicate which of the following are functions of exocytosis. (Select all that apply!)
Ans:
-removing cellular wastes
-releasing large cell products

Q. When would a plant need exocytosis?
Ans: To move carbohydrates out of the cell and create the cell wall

Q. Select the TWO ways cell’s can move things in and out:
Ans:
-Active Transport
-Passive Transport

Q. How is passive transport like riding a bike down hill?
Ans: Passive transport does not require energy, just like riding a bike down a hill.

Q. In both types of passive transport, objects move from an area of concentration to an area of concentration.
Ans: high to low

Q. Osmosis is the diffusion of:
Ans: Water

Q. Active transport requires:
Ans: energy

Q. How is active transport like swimming up stream?
Ans: They both require energy

Q. During endocytosis, a cell brings an object __.
Ans: inside

Q. During exocytosis, a cell sends an object __
Ans: outside

Q. What does it mean to be selectively permeable?
Ans: Some molecules may pass through, and some may not.

Q. How many layers is the lipid bilayer of a cell membrane? (Hint: It’s called a bilayer because it has___ layers.)
Ans: 2

Q. Molecules are moving from a high to low concentration is an example of
Ans: passive transport

Q. Does Diffusion require energy from the cell?
Ans: No

Q. In facilitated diffusion, molecules move from _ to __ areas of concentration.
Ans: high / low

Q. In facilitated diffusion, molecules require the help of _ to cross the cell membrane.
Ans: transport protein

Q. Facilitated Diffusion is a form of __ Transport.
Ans: Passive

Q. Does Passive Transport require energy?
Ans: No

Q. The diffusion of water across a membrane is called…
Ans: Osmosis

Q. Finish this statement:
Ans: it moves from areas of high concentration to low concentration without using energy.

Q. In active transport molecules move from areas of _ concentration to areas of __ concentration.
Ans: low / high

Q. Does Active transport require energy?
Ans: Yes

Q. What type of energy is required for active transport to occur?
Ans: ATP

Q. During Exocytosis molecules are moving —
Ans: into the cell.

Q. In Endocytosis the molecules move _ the cell.
Ans: Into

Q. What process causes the molecules to spread out?
Ans: Diffusion

Q. The use of energy to transport molecules is known as:
Ans: Active Transport

Q. The cell uses this molecule for energy:
Ans: ATP

Q. True or False: Passive Transport requires energy to move molecules across a cell membrane.
Ans: False

Q. What takes place at the alveoli?
Ans: Diffusion of gasses

Q. The diffusion of water across a semi-permeable membrane is known as:
Ans: Osmosis

Q. Why is throwing salt on a slug bad for the slug?
Ans: Water will move from an area of high concentration inside the slug to an area of low concentration outside the slug.

Q. A cell that is surround by a high concentration of solute is said to be in a __ solution.
Ans: Hypertonic

Q. A red blood cell in plasma is in equilibrium, which means the plasma is _ to the red blood cell.
Ans: Isotonic

Q. Molecules will diffuse from an area of _ concentration to an area of _ concentration.
Ans: High –> Low

Q. Facilitated diffusion requires:
Ans: A protein

Q. True or False: ATP (energy) is required for active transport.
Ans: True

Q. Active transport moves molecules from an area of _ concentration to an area of _ concentration.
Ans: Low –> High

Q. Endocytosis moves large amounts of materials __ the cell.
Ans: into

Q. True or False: Active and Passive Transport both require energy to move molecules across the cell membrane.
Ans: False

Higher Education/College Answers

Q. What is NOT part of the Modern Cell Theory?
Ans: All cells contain a nucleus

Q. The tiny structures inside of cells are called
Ans: organelles

Q. Organisms that are made up of prokaryotic cells include (check any that apply)
Ans:
-Bacteria
-Archaea

Q. Organisms that are made up of eukaryotic cells include (check any that apply)
Ans:
-Plants
-Animals
-Protists
-Fungi

Q. What do prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells have in common?
Ans: Genetic Material (like DNA)

Q. What part of the cell regulates what moves into and out of a cell?
Ans: cell membrane

Q. By regulating what goes into and out of a cell the cell membrane helps maintain _
Ans: Homeostasis

Q. The jelly-like substance inside the cell is called __.
Ans: cytoplasm

Q. A series of tubules that make up the internal “skeleton” of the cell and give it support is called the
Ans: cytoskeleton

Q. Ribosomes inside the cell have the job of
Ans: Making Proteins (Protein Synthesis)

Q. The structure inside the nucleus is called the nucleolus and it has the job of
Ans: making ribosomes

Q. The difference between the smooth and rough ER is that is attached to the outside of the _ ER.
Ans: ribosomes, rough

Q. The Golgi is an organelle that has the job of
Ans: packaging up molecules made by the cell

Q. The two main types of eukaryotic cells are
Ans: plant and animal

Q. What is the function of the mitochondria?
Ans: create energy

Q. Which type of cell contains chloroplasts?
Ans: Plant Cell

Q. Chloroplasts perform a process called
Ans: photosynthesis

Q. In the process of photosynthesis plants make
Ans: glucose

Q. Which type of cell has the larger vacuole?
Ans: plant

Q. A vacuole’s main job is to
Ans: store material

Q. Plants have an extra strong structure on the outside of their cell membrane to make the plant cell strong and rigid. What is it called?
Ans: cell wall

Q. All of the tiny structures that you just learned about, that are located inside eukaryotic cells are called
Ans: organelles

 

Evolution

Check the answers for the topic “Evolution” below:

Grade – 5 to12 Answers

Q. What is the theory of evolution?
Ans: a theory that explains how species change over time

Q. Does the Theory of Evolution explain how life first began?
Ans: No

Q. In science, what is a theory?
Ans: An explanation with massive amounts of evidence and facts to back it up.

Q. In selective breeding…
Ans: artificial selection of traits get passed on to many future generations, through the years

Q. Mutations are…
Ans: a genetic variation in a DNA sequence

Q. Is evolution an “accident?”
Ans: No, natural selection is driven by the fact that some organisms are better adapted to their environment than others

Q. Physical traits of an organism may contribute to reproductive success–having offspring.
That means that
Ans: those traits are more likely to be passed down to the next generation

Q. Some non beneficial traits can be passed on to future generations.
Ans: True

Q. Evolution
Ans:
– occurs over generations; doesn’t happen over night
– can take millions of years
– is driven by natural selection
– can be difficult to understand because it takes a long time and many generations to see changes

Q. Genetic drift and natural selection…
Ans: can lead to new species that share a common ancestor

Q. Which is true?
Ans: Humans and modern

Q. The Theory of Evolution is mostly based on which TWO factors?
Ans:
– Fossil record
– DNA analysis

Q. True or False? According to the Theory of Evolution, all life on Earth is related.
Ans: True

Q. Why did the white rabbit survive long enough to have more baby white rabbits?
Ans: In this habitat, being white gave it an advantage

Q. What are the random changes to the DNA in genes called?
Ans: Mutations

Q. If random mutations cause slight changes (for better or for worse), what process means the best mutations become more common?
Ans: natural selection

Q. What change in the habitat forced cricket populations to adapt?
Ans: The arrival of a parasitic fly

Q. Why are crickets on those two islands silent?
Ans: Crickets with genes for smooth skin became the dominant species due to natural selection.

Q. Which statement is true?
Ans: Complex eyes first evolved from light-sensitive cells

Q. If two similar animals cannot create viable offspring when they mate, what does this mean?
Ans: They are different species

Q. Which is the most direct cause of the emergence of a new species?
Ans: isolation

Q. Which below is NOT an example of an “imperfect” structure?
Ans: the fact that mammals have two nasal openings

Q. Why do you think men have nipples?
Ans: Men and women share some of the same genes used to make the body grow

Q. The Second Law of Thermodynamics is the one that states (basically) energy can’t be created or destroyed; only transferred. How is Earth not subject to this Law?
Ans: Earth receives energy constantly from the Sun

Q. What’s wrong with this question?
Ans: Humans did not evolve from monkeys. Monkeys and humans share a common ancestor.

Q. Humans continue to evolve, as evidenced by (choose all that apply):
Ans:
– the fact that many of us carry a mutation that keeps a milk-digesting enzyme to be turned on into adulthood
– a genetic mutation has made Tibetan highlanders uniquely adapted to live in high altitudes
– One copy of the mutation that causes sickle cell disease can protect people from malaria
– In areas where HIV and AIDS continue to be hard to treat, a gene mutation that provides resistance to the virus will likely become more common

Q. Where do variation in traits within a species come from?
Ans: the variations are in their genotypes

Q. Fitness in natural selection
Ans: is correlated with the number of offspring produced

Q. Why will there be more darker frogs over time?
Ans: There will be more darker frogs because they are not being eaten as much as the lighter frogs so more survive and pass on their genes (darker color) to their offspring.

Q. The definition of evolution is…
Ans: change in heritable traits in a population over time

Q. Which of the following alleles could remain hidden in a population?
Ans: Recessive (little g) alleles

Q. Mutations and variations are…
Ans: random

Q. Variations can be
Ans: positive, negative or neutral

Q. Natural selection __
Ans: selects those mutations that give an organism an advantage for survival
results in adaptations

Q. Bacteria are all the same and do not have variations within the species.
Ans: False

Q. Which type of bacteria have the greatest fittness?
Ans: Bacteria that become antibiotic resistant and are able to reproduce

Q. What makes bacteria dangerous when they undergo NATURAL SELECTION?
Ans: They can resist antibiotics and copy their genes to other bacteria to make people very sick

Q. What is a possible explanation for why an antibiotic would no longer work for someone?
Ans: The bacteria that survive pass on their resistance to their offspring so that over time all of the bacteria are resistant.

Q. If you are sick because of a virus, should you take antibiotics?
Ans: No! Antibiotics do not effect viruses.

Higher Education/College Answers

Q. What is the theory of evolution?
Ans: a theory that explains how species change over time

Q. Does the Theory of Evolution explain how life first began?
Ans: No

Q. What is the theory of evolution?
Ans: a theory that explains how species change over time

Q. In science, what is a theory?
Ans: An explanation with massive amounts of evidence and facts to back it up.

Q. In selective breeding…
Ans: artificial selection of traits get passed on to many future generations, through the years

Q. Mutations are…
Ans: a genetic variation in a DNA sequence

Q. Is evolution an “accident?”
Ans: No, natural selection is driven by the fact that some organisms are better adapted to their environment than others

Q. Physical traits of an organism may contribute to reproductive success–having offspring.
Ans: those traits are more likely to be passed down to the next generation

Q. Some non beneficial traits can be passed on to future generations.
Ans: True

Q. Evolution
Ans:
– occurs over generations; doesn’t happen over night
– can take millions of years
– is driven by natural selection
– can be difficult to understand because it takes a long time and many generations to see changes

Q. Genetic drift and natural selection…
Ans: can lead to new species that share a common ancestor

Q. Which is true?
Ans: Humans and modern

Q. The Theory of Evolution is mostly based on which TWO factors?
Ans:
– Fossil record
– DNA analysis

Q. The first evidence for technology was when ancient humans began……?
Ans: to count things.

Q. When was the first idea of robots and artificial intelligence?
Ans: 1206 AD

Q. Who had the first mechanical calculator?
Ans: da Vinci

Q. Nothing came of the first mechanical calculator then another mechanical calculator took off in popularity, who’se was it?
Ans: Pascal

Q. Capturing lightning in a bottle in this case makes reference to…?
Ans: the invention of the electric light bulb.

Q. Several new types of computers were developed just after the ending of what major event?
Ans: World War 2

Q. What decade had the first digital computer that needed a mouse AND developed the first programmable calculator?
Ans: 1960s

Q. The CD ROM was developed during the …..?
Ans: 1980s

Q. Whenever you type a website.. www.—- you are accessing the world wide web! “Internet” had been out for a while but was localized and not world wide. When did the world wide web come out?
Ans: 1989

Q. Siri and Watson were two initial examples of Artificial Intelligence linked with computing power.
Ans: True

Q. Which was the first car that Tesla introduced?
Ans: Roadster

Q. In what year was the autopilot implemented in a Tesla car?
Ans: 2016

Q. Which cars earned a 5-star rating in each subcategory according to the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration?
Ans:
– Model S
– Model X

Q. Which is the car that is bullet-resistant and has armored glass?
Ans: Cybertruck

Q. The Model S is faster than …
Ans:
– Bugatti Chiron
– Model X
– Lamborghini Aventador S

 

Evidence For Evolution

Check the quiz questions and answers by clicking the below link:

=> Find Answers Here

 

 

Characteristics of Life

Check the answers for the topic “Characteristics of Life” below:

Grade – 5 to12 Answers

Q. The word biology means the study of _.
Ans: life

Q. The characteristics of life have the possibility of changing over time because…
Ans: many organisms are still being discovered and studied.

Q. The characteristics of life have the possibility of changing over time because…
Ans: what is listed can be expanded upon, exceptions can be made, and order can change.

Q. According to modern cell theory, all living things are made of cells, which are the smallest living unit in all organisms. These cells come from _.
Ans: other pre-existing cells

Q. According to modern cell theory, all living things are made of cells, which are the smallest living unit in all organisms. These cells come from _.
Ans: other pre-existing cells

Q. The term unicellular means to be made of _.
Ans: one cell

Q. The term multicellular means to be made of _.
Ans: many cells

Q. The term homeostasis means…
Ans: maintaining an internal balance.

Q. An example of responding to a stimuli is…
Ans: plants responding to light.

Q. The gene frequency of a population changes _.
Ans: over time

Q. Over time, _ results when certain traits are selected for over others.
Ans: adaptation

Q. In order to reproduce, a virus needs _.
Ans: a host cell

Q. Viruses are not considered living because…
Ans: they do not have all the characteristics of life.

Q. The difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells is that…
Ans: prokaryotic cells have no nucleus and eukaryotic cells do have a nucleus.

Q. True or false: Scientists know every species on this planet.
Ans: False

Q. Which characteristic of life is being described when Mr. Queso says, “Cells are the building blocks of life and all organisms have them.”
Ans: Cellular Organization

Q. True or False. All cells have DNA.
Ans: True

Q. Which scenario is an example of responding to stimuli/the environment?
Ans: A rabbit running from a dog

Q. Which characteristic of life is being described when Mr. Queso discusses plants moving towards light?
Ans: Respond to stimuli

Q. What would happen if living things DID NOT reproduce?
Ans: The species would go extinct

Q. True of False? There are 2 types of reproduction – sexual and asexual
Ans: TRUE

Q. Which scenario is an example of growing and developing?
Ans: A seed becoming a sunflower plant

Q. Which characteristic of life is being described when Mr. Queso says, “All living things need energy to live.”
Ans: Get and Use Energy

Q. True or False. Plants respond to stimuli.
Ans: True

Q. Which characteristic of life is being described when Mr. Queso says, “Look at all of these petals of different sizes.”
Ans: Growth and Development

Q. True or False – In order to be a living thing, you need to have some of the characteristics of life.
Ans: FALSE

Q. Check all the multicellular things below
Ans:
– Worm
– Oak tree
– Fish

Q. Groups of cells that serve a specific purpose are called
Ans: Tissues

Q. A group of organs is called a
Ans: An organ system

Q. Almost all energy comes from the
Ans: Sun

Q. As living cells grow, what do they do?
Ans: Divide

Q. All individuals need to reproduce in order to survive. True/False
Ans: False

Q. How does this disclaimer relate to things we know about science?
Ans: As we gain new knowledge, scientific information can change

Q. True or False: Living organisms are made of cells
Ans: True

Q. Based on the definition of unicellular and multicellular, which do you think would describe a human?
Ans: Multicellular

Q. We might maintain homeostasis of which of the following processes
Ans:
– Body Temperature
– Water concentration

Q. All living things are made up of those living things must maintain a balance within themselves called _ in order to continue living on this planet.
Ans: cells, homeostasis

Q. Metabolism is the capture and use of energy.
Ans: True

Q. Offspring, which can be seeds or babies, are created during after they are created they must in order to continue life on this planet.
Ans: reproduction, grow/develop

Q. All living things respond to stimuli.
Ans: True

Q. Living things pass on _ from parents to offspring throughout generations of organisms that material will change or _ and new traits within a species will arise.
Ans: DNA, evolve

Q. Select all the following characteristics of life that Virus DO HAVE…
Ans:
– Reproduction
– Evolution

Q. What does all of life have? What does that mean?
Ans: DNA; all life is related

Q. What does “conserved” mean?
Ans: remaining over time

Q. Which is NOT an essential characteristic of life that is conserved?
Ans: nucleus

Q. What is the genetic code and where is it found?
Ans: DNA; in all life

Q. What does it mean that DNA is universal?
Ans: found in everything that is living

Q. What is the Central Dogma?
Ans: DNA– RNA– Protein

Q. What is the “energy coinage” for all life?
Ans: ATP

Q. What does it “mean” that all life uses the same/similar metabolic pathways to create ATP?
Ans: metabolic pathways originated early in the tree of life from a common ancestor

Q. How could have the endomembrane system been formed?
Ans: in-folding of membrane upon itself

Q. Mitochondria and chloroplasts give evidence for the process of endosymbiosis by
Ans: having their own DNA

Q. The smallest unit of life is…
Ans:
– an atom
– a cell

Q. Which of the following lists the hierarchy of life from LEAST complex to MOST complex?
Ans: cell, tissue, organ, organ system, organism

Q. A brain is an example of a(n)…
Ans: organ

Q. A group of neurons (brain cells) working together make up a(n)….
Ans: tissue

Q. A hydra can produce a bud which eventually breaks off and lives its own, identical organism. This is an example of…
Ans: Asexual reproduction

Q. The pollen from one flower fertilizes a second flower, which then produces seeds. This is an example of…
Ans: Sexual reproduction

Q. Select ALL the autotrophs (3)
Ans:
-Oak tree
-Moss
-Cactus

Q. Wild rabbits eat grasses, fruits, and vegetables to stay alive. Rabbits are an example of a(n)…
Ans: Heterotroph

Q. A cat will jump when it hears a loud noise. The loud noise is the _ and jumping is the __.
Ans: stimulus, response

Q. How does your body respond when you have too much water in your body?
Ans: go to the bathroom

Higher Education/College Answers

Q. When sodium concentration is too low, the body releases water to increase the sodium concentration to normal levels. This is an example of…
Ans: homeostasis

Q. A tulip uses sunlight to produce the sugars it needs to power its life processes. This is an example of…
Ans: Energy Use

Q. Over time, whale ancestors lost their hind limbs and became better adapted to live in the ocean. This is an example of…
Ans: Evolution

Q. When placed by a window, a plant’s leaves bend towards the sunlight. This is an example of…
Ans: Response to Stimuli

Q. The bacteria cells divide and multiply to form a larger colony of identical bacteria cells. This is an example of…
Ans: Reproduction

Q. Biology is _.
Ans: The study of living things

Q. What are the building blocks of life?
Ans: atoms

Q. What is the correct level of organization for living things from least to greatest?
Ans: atom, molecules, cell, tissue, organ, organism

Q. What is the correct order of organization from greatest to least?
Ans: biosphere, ecosystem, community, population, organism, organ, tissue, cell, molecule, atom

Q. Cell theory states:
Ans: All organisms are made of cells and all cells come from pre-existing cells

Q. DNA stands for?
Ans: Deoxyribonucleic Acid

Q. ___________takes the sun energy and stores it in the form of sugars
Ans: Photosynthesis

Q. organism that convert the suns energy into sugar are?
Ans: producers

Q. Consumers overall feed on
Ans: both

Q. What is the balance that organisms must maintain called
Ans: homeostasis

Q. What are the two feedback mechanism in organism?
Ans: positive and negative

Q. _________observed finches on a small chain of islands known as the __________islands
Ans: Charles Darwin, Galapagos

Q. Change in characteristics of a population over time is known as?
Ans: Evolution

Q. What are common characteristics of living things
Ans: Have cells, DNA, energy, reproduce, and evolve

 

Social Studies

Get the answers for Social Studies based important topics by browsing below:

 

Industrial Revolution

Check the answers for the topic “Industrial Revolution” below:

Grade – 5 to12 Answers

Q. What does industrialism mean?
Ans: When something is made by machine, not by hand

Q. Where did the Industrial Revolution begin?
Ans: Great Britain

Q. What does the enclosure movement do?
Ans: It changes how farming happens and leads to many farmers losing their jobs.

Q. What is the overall impact of the Seed drill, crop rotation, and other inventions of the agricultural revolution?
Ans: It helps produce more food and increases the population

Q. What natural resources did Great Britain have that helped fuel the industrial revolution?
Ans: Rivers, coal, and iron

Q. What natural resources did Great Britain have that helped fuel the industrial revolution?
Ans: Rivers, coal, and iron

Q. The cottage system…
Ans: is where things were made by hand, took a while, and cost a lot of money

Q. What do you think textiles means?
Ans: cloth

Q. What does urbanization mean?
Ans: When many people move from the countryside to cities

Q. How does industrialism spread to the U.S.?
Ans: Samuel Slater memorizes the techniques and machines used in the British textile industry and brings it to the U.S

Q. According to the video, which two countries eventually industrialize in the late 19th century?
Ans: Germany and Japan

Q. Industrial capitalism is
Ans: about making money and contributing to the growth of the middle class.

Q. What were two new methods of organizing a business as a result of industrialism?
Ans: Corporations and partnerships

Q. Trade unions were
Ans: formed by people who worked in a certain business to have one voice when asking bosses to raise their wages or improve conditions

Q. According to the video, what were the six impacts of industrialism?
Ans: Growth of cities, the rise of trade unions, industrial capitalism, development of socialism, new methods of organizing businesses, and the rise of a working class

Q. Europeans in 1820 essentially lived like those hundreds of years earlier?
Ans: True

Q. The Industrial Revolution made major changes from about 1820 to 1920
Ans: True

Q. When did European Industrial production begin?
Ans: 18th century

Q. Who were the most common victims of poor working conditions?
Ans: Children

Q. Industries were able to produce goods and manage their companies due to cheap or free labor from
Ans:
– Women
– Children
– Enslaved People

Q. What revolutionized the amount of work humans could accomplish?
Ans: Steam Power

Q. Which one of these would be a secondary worker?
Ans: Teacher

Q. What two classes were created from the Industrial Revolution?
Ans: Bourgeisie and Proletariat

Q. What changes did women go through during the Industrial Revolution?
Ans:
– They worked in Factories
– Their working conditions were very poor

Q. Historians claim that the Industrial Revolution is still happening.
Ans: True

Q. How did the agricultural revolution change the population?
Ans: Better food production helped grow the population

Q. How did the Agricultural Revolution lead to urbanization
Ans: Higher production on farms led to more people moving to the cities

Q. What were steam engines used for?
Ans:
– Machines in factories
– Locomotives or trains
– Steamships or boats

Q. What were new modes of transportation throughout Britain?
Ans: Trains on railroads & steamships on canals

Q. What were some issues with cities during the Industrial Revolution
Ans:
– They were very dirty and polluted
– The cities were overcrowded
– The factories had dangerous working conditions

Q. Which inventions are used in the textile industry?
Ans:
-telegraph and telephone
-powered loom and spinning mule

Q. How did the population shift from the beginning to the end of the Industrial Revolution?
Ans: People left the rural countryside and moved to the city.

Q. Which country is credited for starting the Industrial Revolution?
Ans: England

Q. What do historians think Great Britain led in the Industrial Revolution?
Ans: They are an island that did not need to spend as much money and energy on defense like mainland Europe.

Q. By the end of the Industrial Revolution, which country was leading in production?
Ans: United States

Q. Before the Industrial Revolution, how did most people get the things they needed to survive?
Ans: By making things themselves or trading (bartering) with others.

Q. Factories originally were powered by water mills. However, with the invention of the steam engine, factories began requiring what two raw materials?
Ans: Coal and Oil

Q. Where was the birthplace of the Industrial Revolution?
Ans: Great Britain (England)

Q. America used to rely on trade with Great Britain for its manufactured goods. The Industrial Revolution in America was kick-started by what two events?
Ans: Jefferson’s Embargo Act and the War of 1812

Q. After cotton was grown and picked in the South, where was it sent?
Ans: To factories in the North to be turned into finished products.

Q. In addition to the Cotton Gin, Eli Whitney also created a new process for manufacturing which relied on standardized parts being created and then assembled in a factory. This process is known as…
Ans: Interchangeable Parts

Q. What invention changed things so people did not have to make all their own clothing?
Ans: The sewing machine

Q. Because of the growth of factories, what did people start to do?
Ans: Move from farms to cities.

Q. What are some of the challenges (problems) of the growing urbanization (cities getting bigger) in America?
Ans: Overcrowding; Poor Sanitation; Disease; Low Wages

Q. What innovations led to the improvement of transportation in the early 1800s?
Ans: Steamboat; Canals; Roads

Q. What two-wheeled, human-powered machine did the Velocipede turn into?
Ans: The bicycle

Q. True or False: Without the Industrial Revolution, we wouldn’t have many of the advanced technologies and helpful devices that we use today.
Ans: True

Higher Education/College Answers

Q. What percentage of the world’s population farmed before 1800?
Ans: 80%

Q. What percentage of the US population farms today?
Ans: less than 1%

Q. What did John Kay invent in 1733?
Ans: the flying shuttle

Q. Why was the first steam engine invented?
Ans: To clear water from coal mines

Q. What else did the Watt steam engine make possible?
Ans: Lead mines, sulfur mines, trains, steamboats

Q. What is one of the most contentious questions in World History today? (contentious means questions that are argued over, disputable)
Ans: Why did the Industrial Revolution happen first in Great Britain?

Q. What invention has never really been improved, according to John Green?
Ans: Steam Engine

Q. In 1800, which country or region was ahead in Industrial Production?
Ans: Industrial Production in India, China and Europe were about equal

Q. What had China contributed to the world by 1800?
Ans: Silk, paper money, bronze, written history, fast population growth, poetry

Q. What substance fueled the industrial revolution and was abundant and close to the surface in England?
Ans: Coal

Q. Why were steam engines invented?
Ans: To pump water out of coal mines

Q. What was the positive feedback loop?
Ans: Coal powers steam engines, which use iron and coal, which both need railroads to be transported to build more railroads.

Q. Which country is the world’s largest producer of cotton textiles?
Ans: India

Q. What is the 2nd Industrial Revolution referred to
Ans: Technological Revolution

Q. When did the 2nd Industrial Revolution take place?
Ans: 1870-1914

Q. This timer period could also be called the “Age of _“
Ans: synergy

Q. In the first Industrial Revolution, we got the _. (the picture on your screen)
Ans: telegraph

Q. What role did the telegraph play during the 2nd Industrial Revolution?
Ans: It led to a massive expansion of rail and telegraph lines which led to the revolutionary movement of people and ideas.

Q. This movement of ideas and people began a
Ans: mass globalization

Q. _ introduced his first car in 1896.
Ans: Henry Ford

Q. The _ was patented by Alexander Graham Bell in 1896.
Ans: telephone

Q. he __ was a period of really good times (highs) really bad times (lows).
Ans: Gilded Age

Q. The 2nd Industrial Revolution was a period that played one of the most important roles in
Ans: the evolving of technology

 

The Age of Exploration

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Panama Canal

Check the answers for the topic “Panama Canal” below:

Grade – 5 to12 Answers

Q. Why did Panama celebrate?
Ans: The US gave the canal to Panama

Q. US Ports invested heavily in _?
Ans: infrastructure

Q. Why was 2002 important for the canal?
Ans: China joined the World Trade Organization

Q. Why did the Panama Canal Commission decide to expand the canal?
Ans: Bigger ships

Q. FWhy is the canal so important to Panama?
Ans: National Strategic Interest

Q. What is significant about the canal expansion?
Ans: It is the largest lock in the world

Q. How much concrete is used?
Ans: Enough to create a road from St Louis to N.Y.

Q. What is the size of each of the 3 chambers?
Ans: Empire State Building

Q. What amount of water moves throughout every time a chamber is used
Ans: 33 Million Gallons

Q. How does the basalt from the Pacific side get to the Atlantic side for concrete?
Ans: Barge

Q. The under ground utilities include electrical ducts, storm drainage, and __?
Ans: roadways

Q. How many people did it take to build the original canal?
Ans: 56000

Q. Is El Canal de Panamá a natural canal or a man made canal?
Ans: man made

Q. How long did it take to sail around South America when the Panama Canal was first proposed in the 16th Century?
Ans: 2 months

Q. Which country thought about building the Panamá Canal ?
Ans: Spain

Q. What country built the Suez Canal (which connects the Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea)?
Ans: France

Q. The original U.S. plan to build a canal in Central America was based on a route through _.
Ans: Nicaragua

Q. When construction of the Panama Canal began, 200 workers per month were being killed by disease. Malaria was one of those diseases and it was carried by __.
Ans: mosquitoes

Q. The USA took over the project after __ had failed to continue.
Ans: France

Q. What South American country controlled the territory of Panama when the United States first requested permission to build the canal?
Ans: Colombia

Q. The USA helped Panama to….
Ans: become an independent country

Q. Once the U.S. began the project, how many construction workers worked every day on the canal?
Ans: 40,000

Q. In what year did President Clinton transfer control of the canal to the Panamanian government?
Ans: 1999

Q. To what governing power does the Landbridge Group have close ties and associations?
Ans: Chinese Communist Party (CCP)

Q. What type of people had concerns about the original plan to build a canal through Nicaragua?
Ans: Scientists were concerned about the impact on the environment (Lake Nicaragua is the largest fresh water source in Central America).

Q. How many ships pass through the canal each year?
Ans: 14 thousand

Q. Why was Panama the ideal location of the canal?
Ans: It was where the narrowest land bridge was between the Atlantic & Pacific Oceans.

Q. Which is a proper description of the Panama Canal?
Ans: a watery staircase

Q. What other country was considered as a location for the canal?
Ans: Nicaragua

Q. Which explains why Panama was chosen for the canal rather than Nicaragua?
Ans: Senators were led to be fearful of volcanic eruptions in or near Nicaragua.

Q. Why were the efforts to build the canal a disaster?
Ans: They were trying to build the canal at sea level.

Q. What deadly problem workers face while trying to build the canal?
Ans: Yellow Fever

Q. How are yellow fever and other tropical diseases transmitted?
Ans: mosquitoes

Q. What was done to stop yellow fever in the canal zone?
Ans: sprayed kerosene to kill mosquitoes

Q. What year was the Panama Canal completed?
Ans: 1914

Q. Why did the completion of the Panama Canal practically go unnoticed?
Ans: World War I had started and dominated the news

Q. What was the primary desire to build the Panama canal? (PICK ONE)
Ans: It would help ship’s sailing time by making a faster route

Q. Why was the railroad not the most effective way to decrease travel time? (PICK ONE)
Ans: It was not conducive to transport of ships.

Q. Which country first tried to establish a route through Colombia? (PICK ONE)
Ans: France

Q. What were TWO reasons why the French had a difficult time building a canal? (PICK TWO)
Ans:
– Swampy rainforest ecosystem
– Illness

Q. Which two oceans did the Panama Canal connect? (PICK TWO)
Ans:
– Indian Ocean
– Pacific Ocean
– Atlantic Ocean

Higher Education/College Answers

Q. What was significant about the Panama Canal?
Ans: It was the first connection between the Atlantic and Pacific oceans.

Q. How much could the trip from NY to Cali be reduced with the creation of the canal? By over…
Ans: 8,000

Q. Panama was part of what country before the canal was built?
Ans: Colombia

Q. What tropical diseases did the French encounter that led to 20,000 deaths of workers?
Ans: Malaria and Yellow Fever

Q. What happened in 1903?
Ans: Panama declares their independence from Colombia.

Q. Why did less workers die from disease during American construction in Panama?
Ans: Sanitation was drastically improved, and standing water was eliminated.

Q. How much money did the extra 100 feet of width cost America?
Ans: 13 million dollars

Q. The Panama Canal helped make the United States a world power.
Ans: True

Q. One example of how the Panama Canal benefited the Panamanians.
Ans: Jobs were available for the Panamanian people

Q. How much of Panama’s economy is dependent on the operation of the canal?
Ans: 1/3

Q. Why was the expansion in 2007 necessary for the canal?
Ans: to accommodate “mega” ships

Q. About how many ships pass through the canal each year?
Ans: 13,000-14,000

Q. TRUE or FALSE: The Grand Canal is the largest artificial river in the world.
Ans: True

Q. The Grand Canal connects _.
Ans: northern and southern China

Q. According to the historian, what problem did the Grand Canal solve?
Ans: It made it easier for people in northern China to get grains from southern China.

Q. Based on the evidence just presented, one can infer that working on the Grand Canal was _.
Ans: Dangerous

Q. How many feet does the Grand Canal rise and fall?
Ans: 138 feet

Q. How did Chiang Wei-Yo solve the problem of the Grand Canal’s changing elevations?
Ans: He developed a system of locks.

Q. Which of the following statements correctly explains how the lock system worked?
Ans: If a boat was moving from a lower elevation to a higher elevation, water was added to the lock.

Q. How did the Grand Canal affect the economy of China?
Ans: It led to an economic boom.

Q. How did the Grand Canal affect the politics of China?
Ans: It helped unite people.

 

America The Story of Us: American Revolution

Check the quiz questions and answers by clicking the below link:

=> Find Answers Here

 

Weather and Climate

Check the answers for the topic “Weather and Climate” below:

Grade – 5 to12 Answers

Q. What is the condition of outside air at a certain time and place?
ANS: Weather

Q. What are air pressure, humidity, clouds, and temperature called?
ANS: Elements of weather

Q. What can change in five minutes?
ANS: temperature and air pressure

Q. The higher you go up a hill or mountain, the __ the air gets.
ANS: cooler

Q. _________ air is heavier than __ air.
ANS: cold warm

Q. The faster air sinks the harder the wind blows.
ANS: true

Q. What does the red color on the map indicate?
ANS: hot dry

Q. There is only one climate zone all over the world.
ANS: false

Q. What causes wind on top of hills and mountains?
ANS: Hot air rising while cool air sinks

Q. What is the weather of a certain area over a long period of time?
ANS: Climate

Q. What are climate zones?
ANS: Areas that are divided by precipitation and temperature

Q. Clouds are big puffs of cold air.
ANS: true

Q. A meteorologist predicts
ANS: weather

Q. What forms when moisture evaporates into the air, and then cools?
ANS: a cloud

Q. What is a person who studies weather patterns in an attempt to predict weather?
ANS: meteorologist

Q. Climate is affected by location
ANS: True

Q. What is causing the water droplets to form on the outside of the bottle?
ANS: Condensation

Q. Why is the equator warmer than the poles?
ANS: The sun shines on it more directly than on the poles.

Q. Which landform blocks rain from getting from one side of the U.S. to the other?
ANS: Mountains

Q. What kind of climate is great for growing things?
ANS: Warm and Wet

Q. True or false: It is important to study climate change effects.
ANS: True

Q. Climate is
ANS: how warm and wet a place is.

Q. How does carbon dioxide benefit the earth?
ANS: It holds in heat

Q. How could too much carbon dioxide in our atmosphere harm our Earth
ANS: it makes it warmer – global warming

Q. The atmosphere is like a river of
ANS: air

Q. There is no relationship between the Earth’s different climates.
ANS: False

Q. Climate determines the kinds of and _ that live in different places.
ANS: plants, animals

Q. During El Nino, the surface of what gets warmer than it otherwise would be?
ANS: The Pacific Ocean

Q. Why are the North and South Poles considered “deserts”?
ANS: they get very little rainfall and are dry

Q. What is weather?
ANS: The conditions in an area for that day.

Q. What are 5 elements of weather?
ANS:
– Air temperature
– Clouds
– Wind
– Air pressure
– The amount of moisture in the air

Q. Weather is constantly changing.
ANS: True

Q. Rain is one form of precipitation.
ANS: True

Q. What is a meteorologist?
ANS: A person who studies weather patterns

Q. What do we call all forms of water that fall from the sky ?
ANS: Precipitation

Q. What do we call the level of moisture present in the air ?
ANS: Humidity

Q. What happens to air temperature as you climb to higher altitudes?
ANS: Air temperatures get cooler

Q. What is climate?
ANS: The weather conditions prevailing in an area in general or over a long period

Q. What are the 3 climate zones.
ANS: Polar, tropical, temperate

Q. Climate is determined by altitude (height).
ANS: True

Q. Which of these determine climate?
ANS: Altitude

Q. What do we call scientists who look at weather patterns over long periods of time?
ANS: Climatologists

Q. The earth is divided into how many major climate zones?
ANS: Three

Higher Education/College Answers

Q. What makes weather different from climate?
Ans: Weather is over a shorter time scale

Q. Weather tells us what type of clothes to put on right now.
Ans: True

Q. Climate tells us what kinds of clothes to __ .
Ans: have on standby.

Q. The average day is getting __.
Ans: warmer

Q. True or false: Recent weather can influence our opinions of climate and climate change.
Ans: True

Q. Climate changes _ than weather.
Ans: more slowly

Q. Weather is like clothes while climate is like clothes.
Ans: you’re wearing today / in your closet

Q. Which of these best describes climate rather than weather?
Ans: Annual high temperatures in the summer have increased over many decades.

Q. Each school year for 30 years, the amount of rain that fell at a school was measured and recorded. Tracking rainfall over a long period provides the most information about which characteristic of an area?
Ans: Climate

Q. Which word can helps us remember the difference between weather and climate?
Ans: time

Q. Weather describes the atmospheric conditions…
Ans: at a specific time in a certain location

Q. Climate describes the conditions in an area over a ___.
Ans: average, long period of time

Q. Weather can be _ just a few miles away. Climate is used describe whole _ of the planet.
Ans:
-different, regions
-when and where

Q. The Sahara has a , climate.
Ans: hot, dry

Q. Climate isn’t about what’s happening right now, it’s about what happens on _.
Ans: average

Q. Can small changes in climate cause big problems?
Ans: yes

Q. What can changes in climate result in?
Ans: Major weather events like: hurricanes, flooding, and wildfires

Q. What is weather?
Ans: what is happening in the atmosphere right now

Q. Which are not elements of weather?
Ans: sunshine and air pollution

Q. Climate predicts the _ of the weather and what will likely happen in the future
Ans: trends

Q. Climatologists usually use a recent _ year period to get as close to the current climate as possible
Ans: 30

 

Articles of Confederation

Check the answers for the topic “Articles of Confederation” below:

Grade – 5 to12 Answers

Q. Why didn’t the colonists who wrote the Articles of Confederation want a very strong government?
Ans: Because they did not their new government to be like England (a monarchy).

Q. What was the first Government of the United States?
Ans: Articles of Confederation

Q. When did the Articles of Confederation officially get ratified?
Ans: 1781

Q. What was the Annapolis Convention called for?
Ans: To discuss the effectiveness of the Articles of Confederation

Q. What kinds of weaknesses did the Articles of Confederation have?
Ans: Political, economic, and foreign policy.

Q. How many states had to agree to pass a law under the Articles of Confederation?
Ans: 9

Q. Why was the federal government under the Articles of Confederation created to be so weak?
Ans: The colonists’ experiences with England

Q. What happened as a result of the federal government not being able to tax?
Ans: War debts went unpaid

Q. What did France want from the United States?
Ans: Loans from the Revolutionary War paid back.

Q. In what state did Shay’s Rebellion take place?
Ans: Massachusetts

Q. What was the greatest accomplishment of the government under the Articles of Confederation?
Ans: Settlement of the Northwest Territory.

Q. How many states sent delegates to the Annapolis Convention?
Ans: 5

Q. What was the name of the first federal government created for the United States?
Ans: The Articles of Confederation

Q. How did the British react when the Colonists started to revolt against what they believed were excessive taxes?
Ans: The British decided to punish Boston and the entire colony of Massachusetts.

Q. How did King George respond to the letter from the Colonists?
Ans: He refused to read the letter.

Q. Who did Congress appoint as commander of the Continental Army?
Ans: George Washington

Q. Which state declared itself an independent nation before anyone else?
Ans: Rhode Island

Q. Who presented a plan of confederation the Second Continental Congress?
Ans: Ben Franklin

Q. Who is the author of this new constitution called the Articles of Confederation?
Ans: John Dickinson

Q. What are the other delegates response to Dickinson’s plea that we need a constitution before we declare independence?
Ans: States will be fine on their own

Q. The Articles of Confederation are considered by most historians to have been weak and ineffective at running a government. Which of the following can be considered weakness of the final version of the Articles of Confederation?
Rewatch the last section if necessary.
Ans:
– No strong central legislature
– No power over the states
– No way to enforce treaties

Q. What were the Articles of Confederation?
Ans: Our nation’s first Constitution

Q. The Articles of Confederation “didn’t work” because…
Ans: The Feds (federal gov’t) were too weak and the States were too strong

Q. Why did the colonists dislike or fear government?
Ans: Colonists had suffered under an oppressive, tyrannical monarchy and no longer trusted government to protect their natural rights.

Q. What is the definition of federalism?
Ans: Federalism is the division of power between the federal government and the state governments.

Q. How did the colonists decide to break up power?
Ans: They gave the states most of the power and the feds very little power.

Q. What does the word ‘delegate’ mean?
Ans: Give to

Q. What is the only branch of government under the Articles of Confederation?
Ans: the Legislative branch

Q. How many members are there in the Legislative branch under the Articles of Confederation. What does each member represent. How many votes does each member get in the Congress?
Ans: 13 members; each member represents one of the original 13 colonies; each member gets one vote

Q. Why is the Northwest Ordinance of 1787 the only ‘GOOD’ that comes out of the Articles of Confederation?
Ans: It gives the federal government the power to expand the nation (accept and incorporate new states into the Union)

Q. Which of following are considered the “BAD” of the Articles of Confederation
Ans: no president; no courts; federal government can’t tax; the federal government couldn’t regulate interstate commerce; there was no national system of money (currency)

Q. How many votes did did the Confederation Congress need to pass laws? How many votes did they need to change the Articles of Confederation?
Ans: 9; 13

Q. What changes did Daniel Shay and his followers demand from the Confederation Congress?
Ans: more representation; a solution to their money issues

Q. Why did Shay’s Rebellion scare the members of Congress?
Ans: They feared the people would be coming for them next.

Q. What was the name of the first constitution of the United States?
Ans: Articles of Confederation

Q. When were the Articles of Confederation written?
Ans: Immediately following declaring independence in July 1776.

Q. The Articles of Confederation were structured the way they were because the states feared…
Ans: strong centralized or tyrannic rule.

Q. Under the Articles of Confederation, which entity had more power, the states or the national/federal/central government?
Ans: states

Q. When the states were coining (making) their own money, why was this a significant problem for the U.S.?
Ans: It was difficult for commerce(business) transactions to occur smoothly within the one nation of the U.S.

Q. Which two branches of government that we currently have today, were missing under the Articles of Confederation?
Ans:
– Executive
– Judicial

Q. What is the problem with each state in the United States, having only one vote under the Articles of Confederation?
Ans: It does not take into account that some states have a larger population and therefore should have more voting power to keep aligned with the fair/democratic republic model.

Higher Education/College Answers

Q. What happened in 1776?
Ans: The United Stated declared its independence

Q. True or False: The Americans were very united and considered themselves as citizens of their country before they were citizens of their individual states.
Ans: False

Q. What was the United States first constitution called?
Ans: Articles of Confederation

Q. The National Government included which of the following:
Ans: Congress

Q. List one example of a power that the government had under the Articles of Confederation:
Ans: Printing Money

Q. Could the government collect taxes under the Articles of Confederation?
Ans: No

Q. What happened to the value of money every time the government printed more?
Ans: The value of money went down

Q. What group of people revolted against the government in Shay’s Rebellion?
Ans: Farmers

Q. What is federalism?
Ans: When the state shares power with the national/federal government.

Q. What person or group still hears cases about state versus federal government issues today?
Ans: Supreme Court

Q. What person or group still hears cases about state versus federal government issues today?
Ans: Supreme Court

Q. From the intro alone, what is the situation in our fledgling nation’s government?
Ans: There is debate over how effective the new government is

Q. Who is Daniel Shays?
Ans: A farmer and former captain who fought in the Revolution

Q. At the Constitutional Convention in Philadelphia, What is being discussed?
Ans: Should a new government under a Constitution?

Q. Under the new Constitution, the United States’ LEGISLATURE will have
Ans: two houses (bicameral)

Q. What does the president of the U.S. pledge to do when inaugurated (sworn in)?
Ans: uphold and defend the constitution

Q. How many years passed from when the U.S. declared independence and when the Constitution was written?
Ans: 13

Q. Which document was not only written to England but to the rest of the world, saying that “We are here and we are the United States of America”?
Ans: The Declaration of Independence

Q. True/False: The early U.S. states had a lot in common with each other and got along well with similar culture and laws.
Ans: False

Q. The Articles of Confederation was America’s first ___________.
Ans: Constitution

Q. What were many states afraid of?
Ans: The national government might favor other states

Q. Which of the following was a specific power of Congress under the Articles of Confederation?
Ans:
– Printing money
– Making wars and treaties
– Settling disputes among states

Q. How come George Washington’s men nearly starved to death during harsh winters?
Ans: Congress could not pass taxes to support the Army

Q. Which country still had troops on American soil and could not be removed by the U.S. government?
Ans: Britain

Q. Which event, in which farmers revolted against Massachusetts, proved that America needed a stronger central government?
Ans: Shays’ Rebellion

Q. The Constitution, which replaced the Articles of Confederation, could do all of the following EXCEPT:
Ans: Take away citizens’ rights

 

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Economics

Get the answers for Economics based important topics by browsing below:

 

GDP

Check the answers for the topic “GDP” below:

Grade – 5 to12 Answers

Q. What are the 3 macroeconomic goals?
Ans:
– high inflation
– economic growth
– limit unemployment
– keep prices stable

Q. Which type of economics is most often in the news?
Ans: Macro

Q. What are 3 Macro economic indicators?
Ans:
– Inflation
– GDP
– Unemployment

Q. A used car counts towards GDP
Ans: False

Q. Only __ goods and services count towards GDP
Ans: Final

Q. GDP is measured in
Ans: Dollars

Q. A recession is…
Ans: A decrease in Real GDP

Q. To be unemployed one must…
Ans: Be looking for a job

Q. The 3rd economic goal is…
Ans: Stable Prices

Q. Falling prices are a good thing…
Ans: False

Q. The business cycle is the…
Ans: ups and downs of GDP

Q. When GDP goes down, what indicator goes UP?
Ans: unemployment

Q. GDP is used to:
Ans: determine the size and growth of the economy at a certain time

Q. Gross Domestic Product is the economy’s total production of _ for a given period of time.
Ans: final goods and services

Q. Which of the following is an example of an intermediate good?
Ans:
-AA batteries packaged with a toy
-cheese purchased by Pizza Hut

Q. Which of the following would count towards U.S. GDP?
Ans: Hyundai cars made in Texas

Q. Which of the following items was NOT on the chalkboard?
Ans: a pair of jeans

Q. In order to get a true or real calculation of the actual changes in production or output of an economy:
Ans: changes in price have to be removed from the calculation

Q. The difference between Nominal and Real GDP, is that Real GDP:
Ans: has been adjusted for inflation

Q. In looking at changes in real GDP, we use _ in GDP.
Ans: percentage changes

Q. A recession means __ consecutive quarters of declining real GDP.
Ans: two

Q. GDP per capita means:
Ans:
– the average output produced by each citizen of an economy
– dividing GDP by the population

Q. Changes in real GDP per capita within the same country, can be used to estimate:
Ans: changes in the standard of living over time.

Q. In order to evaluate an economy’s economic growth, economists would look at:
Ans: real GDP

Q. Which of the following TWO would count towards the calculation of U.S. GDP?
Ans:
– Toyota Camrys that are built in South Carolina
– a Japanese chef is hired to cook at a fancy New York city restaurant

Q. According to the video, which of the following are macroeconomic goals? (you must check ALL that apply to receive any credit)
– sustained growth
– low unemployment
– stable prices

Q. A country produces income:
Ans: by producing goods and services and selling them

Q. Which of the following would count towards U.S. GDP?
Ans: Samsung phones made in California

Q. Aluminium used in the production of soda cans is counted as part of GDP.
Ans: False

Q. The goods and services produced are purchased by _ sector(s) of the economy.
Ans: four

Q. Goods and services we buy from other countries are referred to as __.
Ans: imports

Q. Which of the following are components of GDP? (you must check all that apply)
Ans:
– investment in productive capital by firms
– household consumption
– government spending
– net exports

Q. Which of the following is included in the calculation of GDP?
Ans: final goods

Q. The largest component of GDP is _?
Ans: household consumption

Q. Would the cheese purchased by Pizza Hut to make pizza be counted as part of the GDP?
Ans: No, because the pizza as a whole product will be counted.

Q. The computer you are currently using was probably made in China or Mexico. Would the sale of this computer be counted as part of GDP?
Ans: No, it was produced in a different country.

Q. What is commonly accepted as recession?
Ans: 2 Quarters of declining Real GDP

Q. Why is Alpha’s GDP per capita lower than Omega’s?
Ans: More people live in Alpha.

Q. What does GDP measure?
Ans: Economic Growt

Higher Education/College Answers

Q. GDP is used to:
Ans:
– determine the size of the economy at a certain time
– determine the growth of the economy over time

Q. Gross Domestic Product is the economy’s total production of _ for a given period of time.
Ans: final goods and services

Q. Which of the following is an example of an intermediate good?
Ans:
– AA batteries packaged with a toy
– cheese purchased by Pizza Hut

Q. Which of the following would count towards U.S. GDP?
Ans: Hyundai cars made in Texas

Q. Which of the following items was NOT on the chalkboard?
Ans: a pair of jeans

Q. In order to get a true or real calculation of the actual changes in production or output of an economy:
Ans: changes in price have to be removed from the calculation

Q. The difference between Nominal and Real GDP, is that Real GDP:
Ans: has been adjusted for inflation

Q. In looking at changes in real GDP, we use _ in GDP.
Ans: percentage changes

Q. A recession means __ consecutive quarters of declining real GDP.
Ans: two

Q. GDP per capita means:
Ans: dividing GDP by the population

Q. Changes in real GDP per capita within the same country, can be used to estimate:
Ans: changes in the standard of living over time.

Q. In order to evaluate an economy’s economic growth, economists would look at:
Ans: real GDP

Q. Economists track economic growth by measuring:
Ans: real GDP over a period of time

Q. The difference between Nominal and Real GDP, is that Real GDP:
Ans: has been adjusted for inflation

Q. If two countries have the same level of GDP, their standards of living must be equal.
Ans: False

Q. In order to get a true or real calculation of the actual changes in production or output of an economy:
Ans: changes in price have to be removed from the calculation

Q. Which of the following would count towards the calculation of U.S. GDP?
Ans:
– Toyota Camrys that are built in South Carolina
– a Japanese chef is hired to cook at a fancy New York city restaurant

Q. GDP per capita means:
Ans:
– GDP produced using capital equipment
– dividing GDP by the population

Q. Nominal GDP is _
Ans: GDP expressed in current year prices

Q. Nominal GDP = P x Q
Ans: 2,666

Q. Real GDP is __ .
Ans: GDP adjusted for changes in the price level

Q. GDP1 = $2000, P1 = $1
Ans:
– GDP2 = $3000, P2 = $2
– What is the value of Real GDP in year 2?
– $1,500

 

Budgeting Basics

Check the answers for the topic “Budgeting Basics” below:

Grade – 5 to12 Answers

Q. Something you must have is called a _.
Ans: Need

Q. Something you would like to have is a __.
Ans: Want

Q. When figuring out your monthly budget, the first thing you need to know is your
Ans: net income (how much you earn AFTER taxes, insurance, retirement, etc…).

Q. Why do you need to have a safety net built into your budget?
Ans: in case of emergencies

Q. Why is it important to track your spending habits?
Ans: see where your money is going

Q. Regular monthly payments are…
Ans: The expenses that you have every single month.

Q. The “Baseline” is…
Ans: The monthly expenses that you will have to pay every month no matter what.

Q. Automated payments are useful when…
Ans: you want to make sure you pay the payments that you have every month: Your rent, your student loan, your car debt, your credit card!

Q. Setting an “automated payment” to your savings account is like…
Ans: paying yourself. It’s an excellent idea if you want to build an emergency fund or a retirement plan automatically.

Q. Once you have paid your monthly regular expenses and you have saved some money, you can use the remaining money…
Ans: for other purposes (like going to a concert, a dinner, or anything that you want to do with it).

Q. The envelope method is a great example of…
Ans: setting limits to your expenses and adjusting from one budget to another if necessary.

Q. If you use a debit or credit card, your bank account will probably give you a summary of your expenses. That is a great way to…
Ans: see what you use your money on and be aware of unnecessary expenses.

Q. “Rewarding yourself” means that you can save a little bit of money for something you really want (for example: a trip to Europe, helping your family, or a new car). Working towards this motivating goal will help you…
Ans: keep you motivated to manage your money.

Q. True/False: Make sure your needs are covered by checking the expenses that you have every month and are necessary. It’s a great idea to have these payments automated.
Ans: True

Q. True/False: Manage your debt and savings by setting automated payments every month. Even a small amount will add up and help you when you need it in the future.
Ans: True

Q. True/False: Avoid overspending by keeping an eye on your expenses. A great way to do it is using the “Envelope method” where you have a limited amount of money you can spend every month.
Ans: True

Q. Something you must have is called a _.
Ans: Need

Q. Something you would like to have is a __.
Ans: Want

Q. When figuring out your monthly budget, the first thing you need to know is your
Ans: net income (how much you earn AFTER taxes, insurance, retirement, etc…).

Q. Why do you need to have a safety net built into your budget?
Ans: in case of emergencies

Q. Why is it important to track your spending habits?
Ans: see where your money is going

Q. Why is it important to “pay yourself first?”
Ans: So that you have money set aside for savings.

Q. “Accuracy” in a budget refers to…
Ans: the budget accurately reflects your spending decisions.

Q. Which is an example of a fixed expense?
Ans: rent

Q. 20% should be for financial goals. “Financial goals” in this context means…
Ans: savings

Q. One drawback of the flexible budget is….
Ans: it’s difficult to track where your money is going

Q. At the end of the month using a Zero-Sum Budget…..
Ans: all money/spending is accounted for.

Q. What is the error on this page??
Ans: Needs and wants are reversed!

Q. “Buy now, pay later” is probably the worst budget pitfall. What is one way people can avoid this pitfall?
Ans: do not use credit cards

Q. What is one responsible way you can buy things that you cannot currently afford?
Ans: Save money each month until you have the money to buy

Q. How was George Washington able to defeat the British in the Revolutionary War?
Ans: He had a plan to efficiently use what little men he had to work with

Q. What percentage of couples keep a written budget of any kind?
Ans: 32%

Q. Is budgeting predicting how much money you will have in the future?
Ans: No

Q. Before you decide how much you want to spend, what step should you take first?
Ans: Figure out what you are spending currently

Q. Which of the following would NOT be considered “an essential”?
Ans: Movie tickets

Q. What would be a good way to describe “security”?
Ans: Expenses that improve your financial stability

Q. Which of the following would NOT fall under that category of “lifestyle” spending?
Ans: Utility bills

Q. Why is assigning an explicit purpose to the money in your savings account important?
Ans: It’s harder for you to steal it (so you can use it for something else)

Q. Once you come up with a budget, what’s the first thing you should do with it?
Ans: Write it down

Q. What is a good measurement of whether or not you are budgeting correctly?
Ans: You are less stressed about money

Q. In what war did General Washington command?
Ans: Revolutionary War

Q. What percentage of people create a budget for their family?
Ans: 32%

Q. Remember: Let the video run until the very end after you answer this question.
Your goal is not to have more money, but to be………..
Ans: happy with the money you have.

Q. A poor financial decision, even as a teen, can have a life-long effect?
True

Q. Bills, food, entertainment and school supplies are examples of _?
Ans: expenses

Q. A good plan after you have made a list of things you want to buy is to ask ~ check all that apply.
Ans:
– Will it help me to achieve my overall objective or goal?
– Will it make me happy?
– Is it in line with my personal values?

Q. It doesn’t matter if teens understand where they get their money or how they spend it, they can do what they want with it.
Ans: False

Q. Emergency funds are not important for a teen ~ they don’t need to worry about these things, especially if they can use a credit card.
Ans: False

Q. One major difference between fixed and variable expenses is that:
Ans: You do not have control over your fixed expenses, but you do control your variable expenses.

Q. Which are easier to adjust when you look to prioritize your spending?
Ans: Variable expenses.

Q. True or False: Once you create a budget, it can be left on “autopilot” and never needs to be checked again.
Ans: False. “You need to check your budget at least once per month.”

Higher Education/College Answers

Q. When creating a budget, what is the first step?
Ans: Track your expenses

Q. Which category includes contributions to your emergency fund?
Ans: Security

Q. What should you do with any money left over in your budget?
Ans: Place it in the discretionary category.

Q. Don’t worry about it. It is okay to have money left over with no purpose.
Ans: Give that money a specific purpose or savings goal.

Q. Your income is your paycheck
Ans: Yup, that’s true

Q. Expenses are…
Ans: things you spend money on

Q. Car insurance is…
Ans: an expense

Q. Which of the following are parts of a budget? (Select all that apply)
Ans:
– utilities
– income
– expenses

Q. When budgeting, you have to consider what 2 things with your income? (Choose 2)
Ans:
– deductions
– taxes

Q. Do you think Jenn’s idea of how to spend her money is wise?
Ans: nope, no way!

Q. What some of key points to think about with budgeting?
Ans:
– control
– know your real income (after taxes)
– watch out for sneaky expenses(emergencies)
– savings

Q. Regular monthly payments are…
Ans: The expenses that you have every single month.

Q. True/False: Estimated necessary expenses are payments you’ll make, but you won’t know exactly how much. For example, groceries could be around ~$110 each month. But maybe there is a special discount and you pay less, or your friends are coming and you purchase more food than usual.
Ans: True

Q. The “Baseline” is…
Ans: The monthly expenses that you will have to pay every month no matter what.

Q. Automated payments are useful when…
Ans: you want to make sure you pay the payments that you have every month: Your rent, your student loan, your car debt, your credit card!

Q. Setting an “automated payment” to your savings account is like…
Ans: paying yourself. It’s an excellent idea if you want to build an emergency fund or a retirement plan automatically.

Q. Once you have paid your monthly regular expenses and you have saved some money, you can use the remaining money…
Ans: for other purposes (like going to a concert, a dinner, or anything that you want to do with it).

Q. The envelope method is a great example of…
Ans: setting limits to your expenses and adjusting from one budget to another if necessary.

Q. If you use a debit or credit card, your bank account will probably give you a summary of your expenses. That is a great way to…
Ans: see what you use your money on and be aware of unnecessary expenses.

Q. “Rewarding yourself” means that you can save a little bit of money for something you really want (for example: a trip to Europe, helping your family, or a new car). Working towards this motivating goal will help you…
Ans: keep you motivated to manage your money.

Q. rue/False:
Make sure your needs are covered by checking the expenses that you have every month and are necessary. It’s a great idea to have these payments automated.
Ans: True

Q. True/False:
Manage your debt and savings by setting automated payments every month. Even a small amount will add up and help you when you need it in the future.
Ans: True

Q. True/False:
Avoid overspending by keeping an eye on your expenses. A great way to do it is using the “Envelope method” where you have a limited amount of money you can spend every month.
Ans: True

 

Technology and Engineering

Get the answers for Technology and Engineering based important topics by browsing below:

 

Atomic Structure

Check the answers for the topic “Atomic Structure” below:

Grade – 5 to12 Answers

Q. Atoms contain a dense _
Ans: nucleus

Q. atoms contain a dense nucleus surrounded by an _.
Ans: electron cloud

Q. What is the charge of a proton?
Ans: positive

Q. The proton is located in the _.
Ans: nucleus

Q. What is the mass of a proton?
Ans: 1 amu

Q. What is the charge of a neutron?
Ans: neutral

Q. Where is the neutron located?
Ans: nucleus

Q. What is the mass of a neutron?
Ans: 1 amu

Q. What is the charge of an electron?
Ans: negative

Q. Where is the electron located?
Ans: electron cloud

Q. What is the mass of an electron?
Ans: 0 amu

Q. The identity of an element comes from the number of _.
Ans: protons

Q. The atomic number tells you the identity of the element and the number of __.
Ans: protons

Q. The first letter of the atomic symbol is always __.
Ans: a capital letter

Q. The second letter of an element symbol (if there is one) is always _.
Ans: a lowercase letter

Q. The mass number of an atom is _.
Ans: the number of protons plus the number of neutrons

Q. What does the atomic number tell you about an element?
Ans: The number of protons

Q. If a neutral atom has 8 electrons what other information is true?
Ans: The atom has to have 8 protons.

Q. How many neutrons?
Ans: 18

Q. The mass of a proton is equal to __.
Ans: the mass of a neutron

Q. What is the mass number for this example?
Ans: 57

Q. How many electrons?
Ans: 5

Q. What are the pure materials that everything is made of?
Ans: elements

Q. What happens if you cut an element into the smallest pieces possible?
Ans: You have an atom.

Q. What is a model?
Ans: A model is something used to show something too big or too small to show at its actual size.

Q. The center of the atom is
Ans: Solid

Q. The center of the atom is called the
Ans: Nucleus

Q. The nucleus is dense and has what two particles in it? (select 2)
Ans:
– Protons
– Neutrons

Q. The __ make up the cloud part of the atom.
Ans: electrons

Q. Charges can be two kinds (choose two)
Ans:
– Negative
– Positive

Q. Protons are
Ans: Positive

Q. Neutrons have a __ charge.
Ans: Neutral

Q. Most atoms are __ because the number of protons (+) = electrons (-)
Ans: neutral

Q. Protons, neutrons, and electrons combine to make
Ans: atoms

Q. Each element has a certain number of _ in the nucleus
Ans: protons

Q. The number of protons in an atom is called the
Ans: atomic number

Q. The mass of the whole nucleus (the protons added to the neutrons) is called the
Ans: atomic mass

Q. Which property of matter changes based on the pull of gravity?
Ans: weight

Q. How is the Periodic Table organized?
Ans: Based on trends and reactivity of elements

Q. The Atomic Number is the Top Number on the square (not pictured). What does the Atomic Number tell you? The number of_______.
Ans: Protons

Q. What is all matter made of?
Ans: atoms

Q. What are the subatomic particles found in atoms?
Ans: protons, neutrons, and electrons

Q. What is the charge of a proton?
Ans: positive

Higher Education/College Answers

Q. The nucleus of an atom is made up of what two smaller particles?
Ans: protons and neutrons

Q. Protons have a _ charge, and electrons have a charge.
Ans: positive, negative

Q. The electrons don’t fly out into space because they are attracted to the __.
Ans: protons in the nucleus

Q. What charge do neutrons have?
Ans: no charge or neutral charge

Q. AMU stands for what?
Ans: Atomic Mass Unit

Q. The mass of an atom doesn’t include the mass of the electrons because __.
Ans: they are so small they are negligible

Q. The nucleus of the atom _.
Ans: contains most of the atom’s mass and all of its positive charge.

Q. The electrons travel around the nucleus in perfect little circles or orbits.
Ans: false

Q. Most of an atom is actually __.
Ans: empty space

Q. Check everything below that is made of atoms.
Ans:
– An element
– A shirt
– Desks
– Paper
– You

Q. What particles move at high speeds inside an atom?
Ans:
– Neutrons
– Protons
– Electrons

Q. Which subatomic particle has a positive charge?
Ans:
– Neutron
– Proton

Q. Electrons are attracted to protons. What does this attraction prevent?
Ans: electrons from flying into space

Q. Why are neutrons important?
Ans: They keep the particles in the nucleus strongly connected

Q. Which two subatomic particles have a mass of approximately 1 atomic mass unit? Click all that apply
Ans:
– Protons
– Neutrons

Q. Which subatomic particles are used to determine the mass of an atom? Click all that apply.
Ans:
– Protons
– Neutrons

Q. Why is the mass of an electron not factored into the mass of an atom?
Ans: Because their mass is a fraction of the other particles

Q. What two things does Mr. DeWitt talk about that are really distorted when we draw an atom? Click all that apply
Ans:
– The size of the nucleus
– The representation of electron movement

Q. What is the atomic number of an atom that has 5 protons and 6 neutrons?
Ans: Z = 5

Q. What is the mass number of an atom with 6 protons and 8 neutrons?
Ans: A = 14

Q. What is the net charge of an atom with 7 protons and 8 electrons?
Ans: -1

Q. Check everything below that is made of atoms.
Ans:
– An element
– A shirt
– Desks
– Paper
– You

Q. What is in the middle of the atom? Click all that apply
Ans:
– Nucleus
– Neutrons
– Electrons
– Protons

Q. What particles move at high speeds inside an atom?
Ans:
– Neutrons
– Protons
– Electrons

Q. Which subatomic particle has a positive charge?
Ans:
– Neutron
– Proton

Q. Electrons are attracted to protons. What does this attraction prevent?
Ans: electrons from flying into space

Q. Why are neutrons important?
Ans:
– They keep protons and electrons from touching
– They keep electrons from flying into space
– They keep the particles in the nucleus strongly connected

Q. Which two subatomic particles have a mass of approximately 1 atomic mass unit? Click all that apply
Ans:
– Protons
– Neutrons

Q. Why is the mass of an electron not factored into the mass of an atom?
Ans: Because their mass is a fraction of the other particles

Q. What two things does Mr. DeWitt talk about that are really distorted when we draw an atom? Click all that apply
Ans:
– The shape of the atom
– The size of the nucleus
– The representation of electron movement

Q. What is the atomic number of an atom that has 5 protons and 6 neutrons?
Ans: Z = 5

Q. What is the net charge of an atom with 7 protons and 8 electrons?
Ans: -1

 

Color Theory

Check the answers for the topic “Color Theory” below:

Grade – 5 to12 Answers

Q. What is the next color?
Ans: Blue

Q. Mix red and blue
Ans: Purple

Q. Mix blue and yellow
Ans: green

Q. Mix yellow and red
Ans: orange

Q. What colors do we need to make black?
Ans: yellow, red and blue

Q. Mix red and white
Ans: Pink

Q. Mix black and white
Ans: gray

Q. Mix black and orange
Ans: brown

Q. What must we have in order to see color?
Ans: light

Q. What are the 2 color temperatures?
Ans: warm and cool

Q. Which of the following is not a color scheme?
Ans: Complimentary

Q. What are some powerful ways to use color?
Ans:
– Draw attention to something
– Evoke a certain mood or emotion
– Communicate something important

Q. What colors are the primary colors?
Ans: Red, Yellow, Blue

Q. Which term refers to the vibrancy of a color (how DULL or INTENSE it is)?
Ans: Saturation

Q. Monochromatic color schemes involve multiple values of…
Ans: One color

Q. Green, Orange, and Violet are analogous
Ans: False

Q. Complementary colors are colors that are…
Ans: opposite on the color wheel

Q. How many colors should serve as an accent in a tetradic?
Ans: 3

Q. Sometimes, using neutral colors can be a good way to tone things down or make things stand out. Neutral colors are
Ans: grays, white, black and browns and they are NOT on the color wheel.

Q. So a color scheme is important because it can
Ans: a deliberate plan for a color combination that can convey a message, a feeling, and an overall look for your project.

Q. Secondary colors are made by:
Ans: mixing two primary colors

Q. A SHADE of a color contains:
Ans: Black

Q. Which temperature is Blue?
Ans: Cool

Q. True or False: Monochromatic Color uses multiple shades, tints, and tones of a single hue
Ans: True

Q. Triadic Colors are spaced on the color wheel like a:
Ans: Triangle

Q. How many sets of complimentary colors are in TETRADIC color schemes?
Ans: 2

Q. True or False: Analogous Colors are close to each other on the color wheel.
Ans: True

Q. How many Dominant colors should I choose?
Ans: 1

Q. Why do artists use the color wheel?
Ans: To help understand how colors relate to one another.

Q. What 3 colors can you use to create all the colors in the rainbow?
Ans: Blue, Yellow & Red

Q. What group of colors cannot be made from other colors?
Ans: Primary

Q. What was the name of the famous artist referenced in the video who used primary colors in his artwork?
Ans: Piet Mondrian

Q. What 2 groups of colors are used to make an intermediate color?
Ans: Secondary & Primary

Q. Select an intermediate color from below.
Ans: Red-violet

Q. Monochromatic, Analogous, & Complementary are known as different types of __ ?
Ans: Color schemes

Q. Complementary colors do not make each other contrast?
Ans: False

Q. Monochromatic color scheme can be described as tints and shades of one color.
Ans: True

Q. Which color scheme below is an example of a complementary color scheme?
Ans: red-orange & blue-green

Q. So color can draw your eyes to the __?
Ans: emphasis

Q. Does highly saturated colors look fake and confuse the viewer?
Ans: yes

Q. do colors effect your mood?
Ans: yes

Higher Education/College Answers

Q. Which statement is true about your eye structure and viewing color?
Ans: Cones perceive color and Rods shades

Q. What is the definition of hue?
Ans: A color or shade

Q. What are complementary colors?
Ans: Opposite on the color wheel

Q. Color can be considered…
Ans: An emotional unspoken language

Q. What effect does the color blue have on people?
Ans: it has a calming or relaxing effect

Q. What color do we associate with recycling?
Ans: green

Q. Where does depression glass come from?
Ans: people were depressed and needed to put color back in their lives

Q. When using color what should you think about first?
Ans: what colors match

Q. What are the Primary Colors?
Ans: Red, Yellow, and Blue

Q. What are some powerful ways to use color?
Ans:
– Draw attention to something
– Evoke a certain mood or emotion
– Communicate something important

Q. What colors are the primary colors?
Ans: Red, Yellow, Blue

Q. Which term refers to the vibrancy of a color (how DULL or INTENSE it is)?
Ans: Saturation

Q. Monochromatic color schemes involve multiple values and intensities of…
Ans: One color

Q. Green, Orange, and Violet are analogous
Ans: False

Q. Complementary colors are colors that are…
Ans: opposite on the color wheel

Q. Sometimes, using neutral colors can be a good way to tone things down or make things stand out. Neutral colors are
Ans: grays, white, black and browns and they are NOT on the color wheel.

Q. So a color scheme is important because it can
Ans: a deliberate plan for a color combination that can convey a message, a feeling, and an overall look for your project.

Q. What two colors mix together to become purple?
Ans: red & blue

Q. What do warm colors appear to do?
Ans: Advance

Q. Which combination is analogous?
Ans: Yellow-Orange, Yellow & Yellow-green

Q. What color do you get when you MIX two complementary colors together?
Ans: Brown

Q. What is red’s split complementary color combination?
Ans: Blue-Green & Yellow Green

Q. How do you make a tone of a color?
Ans: Mix it with grey

Q. If you want to make an artwork with a lot of anger, what color should you select?
Ans: Intense Red

Q. What are the three primary colors?
Ans: Red, Yellow & Blue

 

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